Rebuttal to Sam Shamoun’s article

A Series of Answers to Common Questions

By

 

He wrote:

 

Muslim Argument:

God cannot die. But according to Christians, Jesus died on the cross. If this is so, how can God die and who was running the universe when Jesus was dead?

 

Christian Response:

This question commits several fallacies. First, the questioner assumes that when Christians say that Christ died this is intended to mean that Jesus ceased to exist for the three days he was in the tomb. This assumes "soul-sleep," i.e. that after death there is no more conscious existence until the body is resurrected. This is not what the Bible teaches.

Biblical death means separation, not annihilation. In fact, Scripture indicates that there are two types of separation. The first is the soul separating from the body at death, with the other referring to eternal separation from God in hell. (Cf. Luke 16:19-31; Philippians 1:23; Revelation 6:9-11, 20:14-15)

 

Jesus did not cease to exist when he died but rather his divine nature along with his human soul departed from his body at the point of death. (Cf. Luke 23:46) The fact that Jesus was still consciously existing at the same time his body lay in the tomb becomes evident in that Christ claimed that he would personally resurrect himself from the grave on the third day:

 

"Jesus answered them, `Destroy this temple AND I WILL RAISE IT AGAIN IN THREE DAYS.' The Jews replied, `It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?' But the temple he had spoken of WAS HIS BODY. After He was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said." John 2:19-22 NIV

 

"The reason my Father loves me is that I lay down my life-only to take it up again. NO ONE TAKES IT FROM ME, BUT I LAY IT DOWN OF MY OWN ACCORD. I have authority to lay it down AND AUTHORITY TO TAKE IT UP AGAIN. This command I received from my Father." John 10:17-18 NIV

 

These passages affirm that Jesus is God since only God can raise the dead, and that Jesus was consciously existing since had he been asleep he could not have raised himself from the tomb.

 

The second fallacy relates to the questioner asking who was running the universe during the time that Jesus had died. This assumes the belief in modalism, i.e. that there are not three distinct Persons who are God, but one Person who assumes three different roles. Christians do not believe that Jesus is the only Person within the Godhead, since both the Father and the Holy Spirit are fully God as well. Hence, even if death meant that Jesus ceased to exist for the three days his body lay in the tomb, the Father and the Holy Spirit were still active at this point since it was the Son alone who became man and died.

 

My response:

 

This has already been dealt with in this rebuttal (*).

 

He wrote:

 

Muslim Argument:

If Jesus is God, who was praying to in the Garden and while on the cross (Cf. Mat. 26:39, 27:45-46)? Was he praying to himself? Besides, how can God pray?

 

Christian Response:

This question once again assumes modalism, the belief that Jesus is the only person within the Godhead. Yet, the fact is, Trinitarians do not believe that Jesus is the only Person within the Being of God, but that the Father and Holy Spirit are God as well. Therefore, Jesus was not praying to himself but to the Father.

 

Furthermore, prayer is intimate communion and fellowship with God. Hence, the three Persons of the Godhead have always had intimate communion among themselves. This is precisely why God does not need anyone outside of his own Being in order to have fellowship.

 

Since God is tri-Personal, all three Persons become the object of interpersonal communion and love.

 

Additionally, Jesus is Man as God intended man to be. Therefore, Jesus came to show us by example how we should live in accordance to the will of God, he being the perfect role model:

 

"To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example that you should follow in his steps." 1 Pet. 2:21 NIV

 

Hence, Jesus not only prayed in order to be in constant communion with the Father, but also to teach us how we should pray.

Finally, Jesus as the God-Man both prayed to the Father and commanded believers to pray directly to himself:

 

"I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. AND I WILL DO WHATEVER YOU ASK IN MY NAME, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. YOU MAY ASK ME FOR ANYTHING IN MY NAME, AND I WILL DO IT." John 14:12-14 NIV

 

In order for Jesus to be able to both hear and answer prayer he must be omnipotent (Almighty) since only an all-powerful Being can grant the requests of all who pray to him. He must also be both omniscient (all-knowing) and omnipresent (present everywhere) in order to know and hear the needs of all who call upon him. These qualities affirm that Jesus is God, since only God is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient as well as the Hearer of prayer.

Therefore, the fact that Jesus both prays and hears prayer affirms that he is one Divine Person who is both God and Man at the same time.

 

(Note: According to Quran 33:56 Allah prays for Muhammad:

 

"Lo! Allah and his angels pray [Arabic - yasalluuna] for the Prophet. O ye that believe! Pray for him [salluu alayhi], and salute him with all respect [sallimuu tasliimaa]."

 

Most translations of the Quran mistranslate the words yasalluuna and salluu as blessings, when in fact it literally means prayers. In fact, a devout Muslim will always recite the following prayer when mentioning Muhammad's name, sallullahu alahyi wa salaam- "the prayers of Allah be for him and his peace." Another time where the Quran indicates that Allah prays is found in S. 33:43:

 

"He it is Who send prayers upon you [yusalliii `alaykum], as do His angels..."

 

A Trinitarian can understand and accept the fact that because there are three Persons within the unity of God, it becomes natural for them to have communion among themselves in prayer. But for a singular Deity, having no plurality, to pray for Muhammad is inconceivable since who would Allah be praying to when praying for Muhammad?)

 

My Response:

 

This also has already been dealt with along with Shamoun's argument of Allah praying in this rebuttal. However for the benefit of the reader I will post part of that rebuttal that deals with Shamoun's argument that Allah prays. From one of the previous rebuttals:

 

He wrote:

Question for Muslims:

The Quran says that Allah prays:

Upon them shall be prayers (salawatun) from their Lord and mercy, and they are the rightly directed. S. 2:157

 

He it is who sends PRAYERS on you (Arabic- yusallii alaykum), as do His angels ... S. 33:43

 

Allah and His angels PRAY for the Prophet (Arabic- yasalluuna alan-Nabiyy): O ye that believe PRAY for him (salluu `alayhi), and salute him with all respect. S. 33:56

Allah prays for believers and Muhammad, as Muhammad prays for believers:

Take alms of their wealth, wherewith thou mayst purify them and mayst make them grow, and pray for them (wa salli alayhim). Lo! thy prayer (salataka) is an assuagement for them. Allah is Hearer, Knower. S. 9:103 Pickthall

 

Since these verses all clearly say that Allah literally prays, and since prayer requires an object, we must therefore ask to whom does Allah pray? Muslims claim that Allah is a singular entity, there being no plurality of persons within his Being, which means that Allah cannot be praying to himself. Or is he? Maybe Allah does in fact pray to himself.

Some Muslims try to redefine words by saying that prayer here doesn't literally mean prayer, but actually means blessings, that Allah is sending down his blessings. The problem with this explanation is that there is an Arabic word for blessing, baraka, which does not appear in the above citations. Rather, the passages use the words salawatun, yusallii, yasalluuna and salluu, all of which are derivatives of the word salah.

 Muslim writer Moiz Amjad of "Understanding Islam" provides the lexical meaning of salah in response to a reader's question:

Ibn Al-Atheer in his highly acknowledged dictionary of the Arabic language, 'Al-Nihaayah fi Ghareeb al-Athar' has explained "Sala'h" as follows:

 

'Al-Sala'h' and 'Al-Salawaat': used for a particular kind of worship. Its literal origin is supplication (prayer). Sometimes, 'Sala'h' is referred to by mentioning any one or more of its parts. It is also said that the literal origin of the word is 'to glorify' and the particular worship is called 'Sala'h', because it entails the glorification of the Lord. (Source http://www.understanding-islam.org/related/text.asp?type=question&qid=780; bold emphasis ours)

On this same site, a question was asked regarding the literal meaning of the word salah to which the writer responded:

 

Title:
The Meaning of the Word "Salah"

Question:

What is the English word that we can use for the word "Salah" ? Is it true that the word "Prayer" is not even close to the meaning of the word "Salah"?

Please explain.....

 

Answer:

Salah (????) literally means one's calling upon one's God (in a respectful and humble way). It is very much the same as the word Du'a (???).

In the Oxford dictionary we read:

 

"Prayer: a request for help or expression of thanks addressed to God or another deity".

I think the above can be seen as a reasonable and literal translation of the word Salah. One might argue that the content of Salah is not excluded to requesting for help or expression of thanks and that other things like uttering God's attributes, glorifying God, etc...can also be included in the meaning of the word Salah. I am, however, sure that this is also true in the case of the word "prayer." (Source http://understanding-islam.org/related/text.asp?type=question&qid=3315; bold and underline emphasis ours)

Noted Muslim commentator, Ibn Kathir, defines the word as:

 

The Meaning of Salah

 

In the Arabic language, the basic meaning of Salah is supplication. In religious terminology, Salah is used to refer to the acts of bowing and prostration, the remaining specified acts associated with it, specified at certain times, with those known conditions, and the characteristics, and requirements that are well-known about it. (Source <http://tafsir.com/default.asp?sid=2&tid=835>; underline emphasis ours)

Muhammad's own first cousin, and renowned Muslim scholar, Ibn 'Abbas admitted that Allah prays:

 

"The tribe of Israel said to Moses: ‘Does your God pray?’ God called upon him and said: ‘Yes, I do pray, and my angels [pray] upon my prophets’, and Allah then sent down this verse: ‘Allah and His angels pray ...’" [quoted by Ibn Katheer on Surat Al-Ahzaab 33:56; translated from the online Arabic edition <http://quran.al-islam.com/Tafseer/DispTafsser.asp?l=arb&taf=KATHEER&nType=1&nSora=33&nAya=56>]

 

Another Muslim scholar made the following comments about surah 33:56 and Allah praying:

 

Allah makes the merit of His Prophet clear by first praying blessing on Himself, and then by the prayer of the angels, and then by commanding His slaves to pray blessing and peace on him as well. Abu Bakr ibn Furak related that one of the 'ulama interpreted the words of the Prophet, "The coolness of my eye is in the prayer," as meaning Allah's prayer, that of the angels and that of his community in response to Allah's command until the Day of Rising. The prayer of angels and men is supplication for him and that of Allah is mercy.

 

It is said that "they pray" means they invoke blessing (baraka). However, when the Prophet taught people the prayer on himself, he made a distinction between the word salat (prayer) and baraka (blessing). We will return to the meaning of the prayer on him later. (Muhammad Messenger of Allah (Ash-Shifa of Qadi 'Iyad), Qadi 'Iyad Musa al-Yahsubi, translated by Aisha Abdarrahman Bewley [Madinah Press, Inverness, Scotland, U.K. 1991; third reprint, paperback], p. 25; bold emphasis ours)

 

And:

 

The Prophet made a distinction between salat (prayer) and baraka (blessing) in the hadith in which he taught about making the prayer on him. This indicates that they have two separate meanings. (Ibid., p. 250; bold emphasis ours)

Perhaps there is a Muslim out there who can explain to us how can Allah pray if he is a singularity-within-unity Deity?

 

My Response:

 

There are several Muslims who could respond to that, it is just Shamoun’s misunderstanding of what is meant, and I would like to thank him for teaching us Arabic.

 

First let us make it clear, almost every Muslim and I say almost because I don’t want to be arrogant, but almost every Muslim would know that those verses actually mean Allah is sending blessings and his mercy, contrary to the Arabic meanings for each, which Shamoun presented in order to show a distinction between sending blessings and prayers.

 

Do you want proof? Sure, before I show the proof I must say Shamoun is indeed a deceiver, he quotes what Ibn Katheer had to say about Salah, and used what Ibn Abbas said about verse 33:56 quoted by Ibn Katheer. I must ask Shamoun why did he not post the tafsir of Ibn Katheer on Surah 33 Al-Azhab. The reason he did no post it is because it basically crushes his argument on Allah praying, it is common sense when you quote someone, you also quote what they have to say on the same issue you are talking about, why didn’t Shamoun do so? I’ll leave that for him to answer. Anyway lets see what Ibn Katheer said

 

The Meaning of Salah

Allah's Salah means that He praises His servant before the angels, as Al-Bukhari recorded from Abu Al-`Aliyah. This was recorded by Abu Ja`far Ar-Razi from Ar-Rabi` bin Anas from Anas. Others said: "Allah's Salah means mercy.'' It may be said that there is no contradiction between these two views. And Allah knows best. Salah from the angels means their supplication and seeking forgiveness for people, as Allah says:

(Those who bear the Throne and those around it glorify the praises of their Lord, and believe in Him, and ask forgiveness for those who believe (saying): "Our Lord! You comprehend all things in mercy and knowledge, so forgive those who repent and follow Your way, and save them from the torment of the blazing Fire! Our Lord! And make them enter the `Adn Garden which you have promised them -- and to the righteous among their fathers, their wives, and their offspring! Verily, You are the All-Mighty, the All-Wise. And save them from the sins.'') (40:7-9) t

http://www.tafsir.com/default.asp?sid=33&tid=41852

 

So as we see it is crystal clear what is meant by the salah of Allah, Ibn Katheer makes it crystal clear, Allah's Salah means that He praises His servant before the angels

 

So now we know exactly why missionary Sam Shamoun did not post that, because it would have ruined his whole argument and he did not expect anyone to go and do research and discover the truth. He expected everyone to just simply take his word for it.  So lets look at what Ibn Abbas said again about Allah praying:

 

The tribe of Israel said to Moses: ‘Does your God pray?’ God called upon him and said: ‘Yes, I do pray, and my angels [pray] upon my prophets’, and Allah then sent down this verse: ‘Allah and His angels pray ...’" [quoted by Ibn Katheer on Surat Al-Ahzaab 33:56; translated from the online Arabic edition http://quran.al-islam.com/Tafseer/DispTafsser.asp?l=arb&taf=KATHEER&nType=1&nSora=33&nAya=56]

 

Shamoun posted that, sure Ibn Abbas said that Allah prays, but we have established what is meant by Allah ‘praying’, it is him simply praising his servant before the angels, sending his mercy and blessing, as Ibn Katheer stated. So when it is said Allah prays, it does not mean the same praying or salah as us humans do, or the same way Jesus prayed to God, which is in the sense to worship, to prostrate, and glorify and ask for forgiveness and help. SO THERE IS THE ANSWER TO SAM SHAMOUN, how about Sam answering us for once. The question remains ‘ IF JESUS IS GOD, THEN TO WHOM WAS HE PRAYING, WAS HE PRAYING TO HIMSELF?’

 

He wrote:

 

Muslim Argument:

According to Matthew 28:18, all authority was given to Jesus. If authority had to be given to Christ, that means that there is One greater than him who is doing the giving.

Furthermore, this means that Jesus cannot be God since he did not always have authority.

 

Christian Reponse:

According to the Holy Bible Jesus relinquished his authority in order to become man:

 

"Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus, who being (Gr.- huperchon) in very nature (morphe) God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man - he humbled himself and became obedient to death-even death on a cross." Phillippians 2:5-8 NIV

 

This passage is instructive since it affirms that Jesus willingly made himself nothing. This was not something forced upon him, but something that both he and the Father decided together.

When Jesus became a slave of both God and man, Christ subjected all his authority to the Father without ceasing to be God. The fact that Jesus still remained fully divine is seen by Paul's usage of the Greek huperchon (being) which is in the present participle tense. This Greek tense implies a continuous state of being or existence, implying that Jesus continued to exist in God's form even while becoming man on earth.

 

Therefore, Jesus did not cease to be God but ceased from exercising his authority as God. At his resurrection, Christ received back the authority he had before the Incarnation. He regained an authority which had always been his in the first place; he did not receive an authority which he did not have to begin with.

 

My response:

 

This subject has already been dealt with in this rebuttal (*).

 

He wrote:

 

Muslim Argument:

In Mark 10:35-40, James, John and their mother requested that Jesus would grant the two disciples to sit on his right and left. Yet, Jesus replied that he could not grant such a request, since it had already been determined. How could Jesus be God if he was unable to even grant a request by his disciples?

 

Christian Reponse:

As we have already noted, Jesus refused to exercise his divine authority since he allowed himself to be a slave. And because he was God's servant, he became completely subject to the Father's will in every aspect of his existence on earth. And as the Father's slave, he could make no decisions until he fulfilled the will of the One who had sent him. (See above)

 

My response:

 

Several of what Shamoun has said has already been dealt with in these rebuttals (*)(*)(*)(*). However so let me give a quick short response to what Shamoun said.

 

Shamoun claims that: Jesus refused to exercise his divine authority since he allowed himself to be a slave.

 

 If this is true then what is so special about Jesus performing great miracles? If this is true then the fact that Jesus was able to forgive sins was nothing special but something granted to him. However so Shamoun believes Jesus being able to remove sins makes him God, which goes against Shamoun's very own words that Jesus refused to exercise any divine authority. Hence if Jesus refused to exercise any divine authority then the fact that he is able to forgive sins and do several other great things means nothing special at all and does not make him God because he is able to do these great things.

If we take Shamoun's words literally then I would want to know what is so special about Jesus forgiving sins? Is this not a divine power that he has which is the reason to why he is able to do such a thing? The answer according to you is no it is not, so then what is so special about it that it makes Jesus God if it is not a divine power that he possesses that able him to do such a thing? I will leave that for Shamoun and the Christians to 

answer.

 

He wrote:

 

Muslim Argument:

God cannot be tempted. (Cf. James 1:13) Yet, Jesus was tempted by the devil. (Cf. Mat. 4:1) Jesus, therefore, cannot be God.

 

Christian Reponse:

It must be remembered that although Jesus was tempted he was still without sin. (Cf. Heb. 4:15)

Furthermore, James' meaning is not that no one can try to tempt God since many have tried (Cf. Deut. 6:16; Mal. 3:15; Mt. 4:7; Acts 15:10), but that there is nothing within God that would lead him to act upon the temptations. Similarly, although Jesus was tempted there was nothing within Christ that would cause him to act upon it, since he was perfect God and perfect Man.

 

My response:

 

This has already been dealt with in this rebuttal (*).

 

He wrote:

 

Muslim Argument:

According to the Bible when a young man came to Jesus calling him good, Jesus responded, "Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone." (Mark 10:18) How can Jesus be God if he is not even as good as God?

 

Christian Reponse:

Jesus did not say that he was not good, but asked the rich man why does he call Jesus good. Jesus was trying to lead the man into questioning whether he really believed Jesus was absolutely good in the same sense that God is. If the rich man really believed Jesus was good, he should then give up everything for Christ. Being God, Jesus deserved unconditional love and self-sacrifice. This is precisely what Jesus demands the rich man to do:

 

"Jesus, looking at him, loved him and said, `You lack one thing; go, sell what you own, and give the money to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; then come, follow me." Mark 10:21 NRSV

 

The rich man must give up everything for Jesus if he wants to be perfect before God. Only God can demand this kind of devotion, a devotion which Jesus arrogates to himself. This point is brought out more clearly in Matthew 10:37-39:

 

"Whoever loves father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; and whoever loves son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me; and whoever does not take up the cross and follow me is not worthy of me. Those who find their life will lose it, and those who lose their life for my sake will find it." NRSV

 

Again in Luke 14:26-27, 33:

 

"Whoever comes to me and does not hate father and mother, wife and children, yes, even life itself, cannot be my disciple. Whoever does not carry the cross and follow me cannot be my disciple... So therefore, none of you can be my disciple if you do not give up all your possessions." NRSV

 

No Israelite prophet ever pointed others to himself, but pointed men to God. For Jesus to demand this kind of devotion affirms that he is God; otherwise this would be blasphemous for Jesus to say if he were only a prophet.

To solidify the point that Jesus was not denying that he was absolutely good in the same sense that God is, we quote the following passages:

 

"I am the GOOD Shepherd. The good shepherd lays his life down for the sheep... I am the GOOD Shepherd. I know my own and my own know me." John 10:11, 14 NRSV

 

Not only is Jesus affirming his absolute goodness, but also applies a title of Yahweh God to himself:

 

"Yahweh is my Shepherd, I shall not want." Psalm 23:1

 

"Give ear, O Shepherd of Israel, you who lead Joseph like a flock!" Psalm 80:1 NRSV

 

Jesus also claims to be absolutely sinless, having no unrighteousness within him whatsoever:

 

"Those who speak on their own seek their own glory; but the one who seeks the glory of him who sent him is true, and there is nothing false in him." John 7:18 NRSV

 

"And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him." John 8:29 NRSV

 

"Which of you convicts me of sin?..." John 8:46 NRSV

 

No one was able to point to even one sin which Jesus committed. For Jesus to be absolutely good strongly argues the case that he is God. Note the following syllogism:

 

A-Only God is absolutely good

B-Jesus is absolutely good

C-Therefore, Jesus is God.

 

 

 

My Response:

This has already been dealt with in this rebuttal (*).

 

 

He wrote:

Muslim Argument:

Christians often use Jesus' I AM statements in John, most notably John 8:58, as proof that Jesus identified himself as the I AM of Exodus 3:14. There, Yahweh tells Moses to tell Israel that his name is "`I AM WHO I AM'. He said further, `Thus you shall say to the Israelites, "I AM has sent me to you"'." NRSV

According to most biblical scholars the Hebrew phrase, ehyeh asher ehyeh, is more accurately translated as "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." This is due to the verb from which the phrase stems, hayah, which means "to be."

Therefore, Jesus' words have no connection with this passage.

Furthermore, the Greek translation of the Old Testament (called the Septuagint) renders Exodus 3:14 as Ego Eimi Ho On- "I Am The Being." Jesus in the Johanine gospel uses the term Ego Eimi, "I AM." He is never called HO ON.

 

Christian Reponse:

In response to Christ never being addressed as HO ON, this is simply not true. We find this phrase used of Christ in Revelation 1:7-8:

 

"Look! He is coming with the clouds; every eye will see him, even those who pierced him; and on his account all the tribes of the earth will wail. So it is to be. Amen.

 

"` I am the Alpha and Omega', says the Lord God, `The Being (Greek- HO ON) who is and who was and who is to come, the ALMIGHTY (pantokrator)'."

 

Jesus Christ, the coming pierced One, identifies himself as both The Being (HO ON) and as the Almighty. The phrase "who is and who was" refers to the eternal nature of God:

 

"And the angels of the waters say, `You are just, O Holy One, who are and who were, for you have judged these things; because they shed the blood of saints and prophets, you have given them blood to drink. It is what they deserve!' And I heard the altar respond, `Yes, O Lord, the ALMIGHTY (pantokrator), your judgements are true and just!'" Rev. 16:5-7 NRSV

 

Hence, Jesus in Revelation 1:8 is claiming to be the eternal God.

Secondly, Jesus' I AM passages tie in with the Hebrew ANI HU references of Isaiah:

"Listen to me, O Jacob, and Israel, whom I called: I AM HE (Ani Hu); I am the First, and I am the Last." Isa. 48:12 NRSV

 

That the phrase I AM implies Deity is clearly seen in the following verses:

 

"Now then, listen, you wanton creature (i.e. Babylon), lounging in your security and saying to yourself, `I am (LXX- Ego Eimi), and there is none besides me..." Isa. 47:8 NIV (Cf. Isa. 47:10)

 

God rebukes Babylon for claiming to be the I AM, believing herself to be a God like Yahweh. Hence, I AM is used to denote absolute Deity and sovereignty, being used as a synonym for Yahweh.

Compare Yahweh's words with Jesus:

 

"Then Jesus, knowing all that was to happen to him, came forward and asked them,

 

`Whom are you looking for?' They answered, `Jesus of Nazareth.' Jesus replied, `I AM HE'... When Jesus said to them, `I am he,' they stepped back and fell to ground." John 18:4-6 NRSV

 

The fact that the soldiers fell back when Jesus uttered the words "I AM" affirms that the phrase served to identify Christ as Yahweh. Otherwise, there would be no reason for the soldiers' falling down to the ground.

 

"When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he placed his right hand on me, saying, `Do not be afraid; I am the first and the last, and the living one. I WAS DEAD, and see I am alive forever and ever, and I have the keys of Death and Hades'." Rev. 1:17-18 NRSV

 

No matter from what perspective we look at it, there is no escaping the fact that Jesus does identify himself as Yahweh God.

 

My Response:

 

Jesus never identified himself as God. Bring me the verse where Jesus said I AM GOD WORSHIP ME. Either directly or indirectly, but it must be clear! The verse will never be found because the fact is Jesus never claimed to be God and never did anything that qualified him as a God. As for Revelations, I call on the readers to read Revelations 1:1 which shows that Jesus in fact is not God, so any text later on that supposedly shows Jesus as being God is blasphemy. As for the soldiers falling, let me ask Shamoun this, why indeed they fall down? Did they fall down because they believed he was God? If so does that make Jesus God? Secondly did the men even know Jesus? They were asking if he was Jesus of Nazareth and Jesus replied that he is and they fell down. Why did they fall down? Did they know Jesus or see him do anything special for them to fall down? The soldiers were simply asking if he was Jesus of Nazareth and Jesus answered them saying yes I AM HE, so does anyone else when asked if he is a certain person says I AM HE, does that make that person God? However so, let us look at the context of John 18:4-6 and every one will see for themselves how Shamoun tries to make something up from nothing even with his own book, and how he tries to deceive people into believing something when the actual context doesn’t support his argument at all. Let us start from John 18 verse 1 all the way to verse 12:

 

1 When Jesus had spoken these words, he went forth with his disciples over the brook Cedron, where was a garden, into the which he entered, and his disciples. 2 And Judas also, which betrayed him, knew the place: for Jesus ofttimes resorted thither with his disciples. 3 Judas then, having received a band of men and officers from the chief priests and Pharisees, cometh thither with lanterns and torches and weapons. 4 Jesus therefore, knowing all things that should come upon him, went forth, and said unto them, Whom seek ye? 5 They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am he. And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. 6 As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground. 7 Then asked he them again, Whom seek ye? And they said, Jesus of Nazareth. 8 Jesus answered, I have told you that I am he: if therefore ye seek me, let these go their way: 9 That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none. 10 Then Simon Peter having a sword drew it, and smote the high priest's servant, and cut off his right ear. The servant's name was Malchus. 11 Then said Jesus unto Peter, Put up thy sword into the sheath: the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it? 12 Then the band and the captain and officers of the Jews took Jesus, and bound him,

Ah yes so when the soldiers fell to the ground when Jesus said I AM HE, it was because they fell down in worship to him because they thought he is God! Hilarious indeed I must say as the context and situation does not even support that or show such a thing happening. The very same soldiers who fell were the very same soldiers sent to capture Jesus for execution. Very funny that for no apparent reason they fall to the ground in worship for Jesus. However so just say they did, then why did they still arrest Jesus and took him to the people who wanted him dead? Why didn’t they just let Jesus escape since they fell down for Jesus when he said I AM HE apparently because they believed he was God. So they knew he was God and yet they still took him as a prisoner and beat him and so on. Very bizarre indeed. That is the first flaw in Shamoun's silly argument, it is INCONSISTENT.

Secondly having read the context it is apparent they did not fall to the ground for worship or respect, but they were stunned and amazed that they had gotten Jesus, the man they wanted right there in front of them so when Jesus affirmed who he was they walked a bit backward excited and so on and tripped or something like that. Or the verse is not a literal fall. However so the fact is that they did NOT fall down to the ground in worship and respect for Jesus because they believed he was God. So the verse in no way shows that they believed Jesus is God. Nor does it show Jesus claiming to be God. Visit all these rebuttals to see for yourself that Jesus without a doubt is not God [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] [6] [7] [8] [9] [10] [11] [11.b] [12].

 

He wrote:

Muslim Argument:

Jesus commanded his disciples to baptize "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit." (Cf. Mat. 28:19) Yet, the disciples baptized in Jesus' name instead. (Cf. Acts 2:38)

 

Christian Reponse:

There is a confusion between the method of baptism, with the authority given to baptize. Jesus is prescribing the method by which believers are to baptized, whereas the disciples were pointing to the authority they received from Jesus to perform this method of baptism:

 

"And he said to them, `Thus it is written, that the Messiah is to suffer and to rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance and forgiveness of sins is to be proclaimed in his name to all nations..." Luke 24:46-47 NRSV

 

"And a man lame from birth was being carried in... But Peter said, `I have no silver or gold, but what I have I give you; in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, stand up and walk.' And he took him by the right hand and raised him up; and immediately his feet and ankles were made strong... `The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus, whom you handed over and rejected in the presence of Pilate, though he had decided to release him. But you rejected the Holy and Righteous One and asked to have a murderer given to you, and you killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this we are witnesses. And by faith in his name, his name itself has made this man strong, whom you see and know; and the faith that is through Jesus has given him this perfect health in the presence of all of you'." Acts 3:2, 6-7, 13-16 NRSV

 

My Response:

Nothing of much importance to respond here. I don’t really base my arguments against Christianity on the way the disciples baptized people.

 

He wrote:

Muslim Argument:
According to Christians, Jesus is the Father's Son. Yet, according to both Matthew 1:20 and Luke 1:35 Jesus was conceived supernaturally to the virgin Mary by the Holy Spirit. This makes the Holy Spirit Jesus' father.

 

Christian Reponse:
This question assumes that Christians believe that Jesus became God's Son at the virgin conception. This is not what Christians believe. Jesus is the eternal Son of God:

 

"... I am the bread that came down from heaven." John 6:41 NIV

 

"I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father." John 16:28 NIV

 

"So now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed... Father I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world." John 17:5, 24 NRSV

 

Therefore, the Holy Spirit conceived the human nature of Christ; he did not conceive the eternal Person of Christ.

 

My Response:

Nothing much to respond to here. That is very touching, however so Jesus is not God.

That shall conclude the second part of the rebuttal to Shamoun's article to continue with part 3 click here.