LUKE 1:59 proves quran's sister of aaron!!!!!

[theydontreadthebible]

Selamun aleykum

I checked the forums using the search engine, I couldn't find anyone mentioning this! (If there is, i'm very sorry!)(title is to show off and get attention to this topic)

Look, when people like david wood say: there is 0 proof of naming people after pious persons existed in 1st century israel.

And then he claims this by using more hadith(not even sahi bukhari/muslim) to show people are confused and didn't know about the naming thing ....

Let's see what LUKE 1:59-62 says

(njkv)

(59) So it was, on the eighth day, that they came to circumcise the child; and they would have called him by the name of his father, Zacharias.(60) His mother answered and said, “No; he shall be called John.”

(61) But they said to her, “There is no one among your relatives who is called by this name.” (62) So they made signs to his father—what he would have him called.

So when they come next time and say no such thing existed in israel, and say it's a pure excuse of the prophet to make up his error. Just use this luke verse!!

Peace brothers and sisters

[Tahmeed]

Wa laikumus Salam dear theydontreadthebible, and welcome to the board.

That's a really good point. JajakAllahu Khair.

Check this out too:

[1 Chronicles 6:18] The sons of Ezrah were Jether, Mered, Epher and Jalon. And Mered's wife bore MIRIAM, Shammai, and Ishbah the father of Eshtemoa.

Most probabily Mered named his daughter after Miriam the sister of Moses.

For people who think that Mary's (mother of christ) having a father named Imran and a brother named Harun or Aaron make her the sister of moses, I have a problem too.

See Matthew 1:16.

And JACOB begot JOSEPH the husband of Mary......

We know prophet Jacob was the father of prophet Joseph too!! (pbut) Not only this. Notice that Joseph the husband of Mary left the holy land and went to Egypt, prophet Joseph did this too! Both took their families there !!

Is this enough to proof that this Joseph is Joseph the prophet? NOO!

Imran saw that he had the name of a pious man (the father of moses), so he named his children after the names of that pious man's children (Aaron and Mary).

If the AUTHOR of the Quran thought that Christ's mother was the sister of Aaron and Moses, He wouldn't write 'O sister of Harun', rather, it would be, 'O sister of Musa', as to Israelites, Moses was a lot more important than Harun (see exodus 7:1). It's common sense! [And by the way the author is Allah!]

Another question rises here. If Imran wanted to name his children after the names of Amram's children, why did he named his son (if Mary literally had a brother named Aaron) Aaron instead of Moses? As Moses was also Amram's son and he was more important than Aaron as I have said.

Answer is simple. How many muslims name their children Muhammad? Some may add the name as they are muslims, but that's not their real name. I would like to quote something from brother Mohammed.Rashid's post. (Bro Rashid please don't mind )

One more thing my name is Rashid not Mohammed.

See? There is also a hadith where a sahabi wants to name his son Kasim, and other sahabas forbid him daying, "We can't call you Abul Kasim (as this was one of the prophet's names)". Unfortunately I can't provide the reference .

Actually we consider his name very holy, as he is the most important prophet for us. The same case with Musa PBUH!

Glory to Allah and peace be upon His prophets.

Tahmeed

[submit]

Look, when people like david wood say: there is 0 proof of naming people after pious persons existed in 1st century israel.

Maybe his logic is saying that  Israelites with the name Johns/Yuhanans that came before John of Zecharia are all non pious. John of Zecharia is the first and only pious of all Johns out there.

[Tahmeed]

Assalamu alaikum dear brother submit,

Look, when people like david wood say: there is 0 proof of naming people after pious persons existed in 1st century israel.

Maybe his logic is saying that  Israelites with the name Johns/Yuhanans that came before John of Zecharia are all non pious. John of Zecharia is the first and only pious of all Johns out there.

If that's his logic, he missed the point.

Look at the line brother TDRTB bolded.

“ There is no one among your relatives who is
called by this name.”

It means their tradition was to name someone after the name of any famous or pious name in the family. So naming someone John would be out of the tradition, as none existed having that name. That was their complaint.

Peace....
Tahmeed

[submit]

Look at the line brother TDRTB bolded.

“ There is no one among your relatives who is
called by this name.”

It means their tradition was to name someone after the name of any famous or pious name in the family. So naming someone John would be out of the tradition, as none existed having that name. That was their complaint.

Peace....
Tahmeed

Then it means the author who wrote the story must have not viewed couple of Johns like the priest in 1st temple period & early 2nd temple period as pious enough.
That is why from the  author's point of view, the Zecharia's family never have the name John running in their family.

[theydontreadthebible]

Submit, that's not the point at all.

The point is, people in that time used to call their newborn after the names of their parents/grandparents, not just pious people

That's most of the christians claim, altough the bible clearly says: none in your familiy is named like that... and thus, proves, that something like this actually existed...