Can someoneput this hadith into context

[Introvert98]

Bukhari (41.598) - Slaves are property. They cannot be freed if an owner has outstanding debt, but can be used to pay off the debt.

[QuranSearchCom]

As I mentioned in my recent reply to you at www.answering-christianity.com/blog/index.php?topic=2075.msg8929#msg8929, slaves are owned by their masters.  But unlike in the Bible, the slave can request his freedom and be granted that freedom if his owner sees good in him.  Not only that, but the owner must pay him money.

But while the slave is a slave, he/she is a property.  They can be sold to other owners.  But they still have FULL RIGHTS OVER THEIR OWNERS.  They can not be beaten nor mistreated.  They also have to be fed and clothed from their masters' food and clothes, and they own their earned money and all gifts and things given to them by their masters.

All of this is detailed in the link above.

Take care,
Osama Abdallah

[Sama]

A man manumitted a slave and he had no other property than that, so the Prophet (ﷺ) canceled the manumission (and sold the slave for him). Nu'aim bin Al-Nahham bought the slave from him.

http://sunnah.com/bukhari/44/6

[submit]

The man sets free his slaves shall  he meet his death, but at the same time he is without property.
The prophet trade the slave on the man's behalf so he will not be property-less.