Alleged Quranic contradiction: Intercession?

[mclinkin94]

I saw this in an answering-Islam Article and I haven't fully examined the alleged contradiction, I will examine it and search for it when I get the chance. I will let you know what I find.

I'm wondering if any of you have examined the contradiction and explained it. I read the answering-Christianity article here: http://www.answering-christianity.com/quran/intercession_rebuttal.htm

But I am still confused as there is more to it!

Summary of the claim:
Quran says:
All intercession belongs to God" 39:44

and that there will be "no intercession on the Day of Judgment" 2:254

Further confirmation that there will be no intercession on Judgement Day are given in: 2:48, 123; 6:51, 70; 7:53; 26:100; 30:13; 32:4; 36:23; 40:18; & 74:48.

BUT:

"Who can intercede with Him, except with His permission?" 2:255

In 2:255 God speaks about those who cannot intercede, except if He gives the permission, which in some ways suggests that God may give His permission to some to intercede.
But we are also told very clearly in numerous other verses that there will be no intercession on Judgement Day (2:48, 2:123, 2:254, 6:51, 6:70, 7:53, 26:100, 30:13, 32:4, 36:23, 39:44, 40:18, 74:48).

Does anyone want to provide an explanation. Like I said, I will further examine it later in depth and I will explain here, but I hope that you know something I don't yet know.

[abdullah]

Assalamualykum brother , Have you found an explananation for these verses? if so can you post it?

[mclinkin94]

Assalamualykum brother , Have you found an explananation for these verses? if so can you post it?

Yes, I have .

What the Quran actually did was to "qualify" the original statement, which it did by adding "unless I allow it" to the original statement, which remained the same, but with the implication that the opposite situation (opposite to "no intercession" = "intercession") might be allowed.

All that the law of thought; also known as either (1) The Law of Contradiction or (2) The Law of Non-Contradiction; asserts is that: The same attribute cannot, at the same time, belong and not belong to the same subject and in the same respect. [Aristotle's Metaphysics; Book IV, Ch. 3. 1005b lines 18-20; or see Plato's Republic 436b - 436c for the same law stated as "doing or suffering opposites"].

So when the Quran qualified its original statement [There will be no intercession] by saying the same thing with a qualification [There will be no intercession UNLESS I allow it.], it simply said that an opposite condition to the original statement might occur at a different time, under a different situation (or in a different respect) from the condition/situation in which your original statement was asserted. This would mean it is not a contradiction.

This is all in accordance with the philosophical laws of contradiction.

[abdullah]

Assalamualykum brother Thank you for your explanation I also found a more detailed answer to this "contradiction".You should look at it helps clarify the topic very well
http://www.understanding-islam.com/q-and-a/islamic-beliefs/regarding-intercession-on-the-day-of-judgment-4781

[abdullah]

Salam Brother i still dont understand it. why in one ayah does it say no intercession but in another ayah it says that others can intercede with his permission. Also how can all intercesion belong to god if their is no intercession.

[mclinkin94]

Salam Brother i still dont understand it. why in one ayah does it say no intercession but in another ayah it says that others can intercede with his permission. Also how can all intercesion belong to god if their is no intercession.

There is no intercession except by Allah's permission.

Allah made a statemet and its exception. This does not fit in as a contradiction with the laws of contradiction.

Its like me saying, "The genetic code is universal" and then I say "The genetic code is universal, but there are exceptions". It is in no way a contradiction within the rules of logic