That doesn't make any sense. Just because that verse was revealed during the revelation of Islam Doesn't mean that it won't apply now. That's a flawed logic.
I literally have
no idea how you came to such a conclusion. How does mentioning the context of the revelation of a verse, or the question that a verse is possibly answering, naturally conclude that the verse is no longer applicable?
When some individual or some exegesist mentions that alcohol was prohibited in the context that it caused social evils in the society or that Jihad was allowed in the context of defending against the
Quraish, do you
also accuse them of making no "sense" and using "flawed logic"? Or is this honour limited to myself alone?
Christians believe in trinity
With the risk of being accused of splitting hairs, what about the Unitarian Christians? Or as some Muslims argue there were many Christians who rejected the Trinity idea even up-to late first millennium CE. These Christians are argued to had been assimilated into the new Muslim populations of those times. See
Dr. Jerald Dirks lectures.
Secondly the Quran told us that whoever follows any other religion than Islam will not be accepted.
I'm not a scholar so I may be making a mistake, but
where does the Qur'an say
exactly that? From my humble understanding, the
verse is talking about the religion Islam being the only acceptable one, there is no mention of the people
following other religions.
Additionally, what about the Jews? After all, the Qur'an clearly says that Allah can forgive
all sins except associating partners with Him. Or did this verse
also got abrogated?
Evidence please, I highly doubt that there's any scholar who believes that those verses are only talking about the infidels during the prophet ( ﷺ )'s time.
Go through
this, and then tell me which Kafir you
know to have received the correct form or interpretation of Islam, had no remaining unanswered questions but still rejected Islam out of malice or arrogance.
