Bother, just make me understand the facts.Pleaes I need them. specially the claim made by them that, many Arabic words which are today used today for some specific things, were used for some other things at the time of PROPHET(S.A.W.) They also say that use of words change with the change of time.
salam alaikum
Give me example of this arabic words so i can tell u whether their meanings were changed or not.
They also say Arabic words without dilact marks on them can be spelled in any way,thus meaning can be changed.
The Arabs did not require the vowel signs and diacritical marks for correct pronunciation of the Qur'an since it was their mother tongue. For Muslims of non-Arab origin, however, it was difficult to recite the Qur'an correctly without the vowels. These marks were introduced into the Quranic script during the time of the fifth 'Umayyad' Caliph, Malik-ar-Marwan (66-86 Hijri/685-705 C.E.) and during the governorship of Al-Hajaj in Iraq.
Some people argue that the present copy of the Qur'an that we have along with the vowels and the diacritical marks is not the same original Qur'an that was present at the Prophet's time. But they fail to realize that the word 'Qur'an' means a recitation. Therefore, the preservation of the recitation of the Qur'an is important, irrespective of whether the script is different or whether it contains vowels. If the pronunciation and the Arabic is the same, naturally, the meaning remains the same too.
According to the claims of Orientalists, a reader can then read the word as فيل (elephant), قبل (before), or قَبّل (he kissed). Clearly, reading such different words would have a huge difference in meaning.
Orientalists make deals with the fact that the Mus’haf of Uthman lacked any diacritical marks.
There are numerous flaws in this argument:
First, the fact that Uthman sent reciters with his copies of the mus’haf is of huge importance. We must remember that the main way the Quran was preserved was orally, and the written copies were only meant to be a supplement to oral recitation. If someone already has a verse memorized, the skeletal letters in a copy of Uthman’s mus’haf served only as a visual aid when reciting.
The second problem with the claims of Orientalists deals with the idea of reading a word completely wrong based on the lack of diacritical marks. Let us assume for a moment that there are no reciters around to explain how a verse should be read from Uthman’s mus’haf and someone comes across the word ڡٮل. As stated earlier, this can be a number of different words based on where the diacritical marks are. However, from context clues, an educated reader can easily figure out what word it is supposed to be. It is almost impossible for a reader to replace the word “before” with “elephant” and have the sentence still make sense.
why we couldn't tell the world about black holes, egg shaped earth, supernovas, big bang theory, expansion of the universe etc before the christens or the greeks?
HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Quran is NOT science books, however it uses the PERFECT words & gives amazing clues to ponder upon God's creation & signs, for example Ibn Taymiyah & Ibn Hazm mentioned that there is consensus among people of knowledge regarding the earth being rounded. Moreover when non-muslims scientists speak to confirm quran, this obviously make their confessions devoid of any possible bias, examples:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=B79qgawyUyE
