Answering Christianity Research Center

1.

The Arabic word Injil (إنجيل) as found in Islamic texts, and now used also by Muslim non-Arabs and Arab non-Muslims, is derived from the Syriac Aramaic word awongaleeyoon (ܐܘܢܓܠܝܘܢ) found in the Peshitta (Syriac translation of the Bible),[1] which in turn derives from the Greek word euangelion (Εὐαγγέλιον)[2] of the originally Greek language New Testament, where it means "good news" (from Greek "Εὐ αγγέλιον"; Old English "gōdspel"; Modern English "gospel", or "evangel" as an archaism, cf. e.g. Spanish "evangelio")

 The Syriac language is a dialect of Middle Aramaic that emerged in Edessa, Assyria-Upper Mesopotamia, in the early 1st century AD, and is considered closely related to the Aramaic of Jesus.

Wikipedia.

So the basis of word Injeel is derived from Syriac aramic, which is closely related to the aramic of Jesus a.s.

2.

There is nothing in that verse like Allah wanted a sacrifice.

It was not accepted from one person because Allah does not go for the materialistic form of sacrifice, He would accept the taqwa,which resides in the heart.

And recite to them the story of Adam's two sons, in truth, when they both offered a sacrifice [to Allah ], and it was accepted from one of them but was not accepted from the other. Said [the latter], "I will surely kill you." Said [the former], "Indeed, Allah only accepts from the righteous [who fear Him or muttaqeen].(5:27)

The other person was lacking taqwa.

3.

If Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w. had justified the black kid,it means the woman had not committed the adultery.It also points towards the science of genetics.

There is no indication from the hadees that the woman had committed adultery, and the colour of the boy is not any evidence to convict someone.The hadees provides the rule.

4.

The case which was allowed only for Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w. was WITHOUT paying meher.If any girl wished to do so,sh was allowed without receiving meher.

For all muslim men, paying meher is obligatory unless the wife voluntarily leaves her right of meher.

If all these women were allowed ONLY for Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w, then no muslim man could marry his cousin, as the verse mentions them as well.

It is the condition which is only for Prophet Muhammad s.a.w.w.

Jazakullah khair Brother...

1.

It is all NORMAL for a girl to reach puberty after 8 years of age.She would not be treated by a Peadiatrician (child specialist) anymore,because the doctors would consider her an adult.

Precocious puberty is the abnormal early puberty for which the age is 8 and before 8 years ,for girls.

2.

The marriage of Aisha r.a. was consummated at the age of nine years.( sahih Bukhari 5063)

3.

Aisha r.a. had herself mentioned that a female is a "woman" when she is nine years old.(Tirmizi 1109).It means she considers the girl to be an adult at this age,not child.


Her words simply imply that she was an adult female at the age of nine when her marriage was consummated.

so allowing coitus interruptus needs further elaboration?

It was not rape at all,as claimed by alisina, because

A.

1.sex slavery was common in preislamic times.
2.It is allowed in Christianity and judaism so the people were fully aware of it.

the law allows male soldiers to rape foreign captive woman (Deuteronomy 21:10-14)

A text about prostitution and the frequenting of prostitutes by Jewish men allows that it is “Better that a man secretly transgress and not publicly profane God’s name so that no one learns from his actions” and that “If a man sees that his [evil] inclination [yetzer or urge] overwhelms him, he should go to a place where he is unknown, wear black clothing and cover himself with black [perhaps to subdue his lust], and do what his heart desires, so that he does not publicly profane God’s name” (B. Kiddushin 40a).

3.Any woman who knows that if she goes to the battlefield and she would be taken as prisoner of war,she could meet such consequences.

So it was all implied consent.

when the female knowing the consequences,even that prescribed in her own religion, goes to the battlefield and then she is taken as prisoner of war,meets the same or better consequences, then it is NOT rape according to the definition.

There is IMPLIED CONSENT.

B.

Secondly,rape is all about losing control,not controlling himself.Coitus interruptus means controlling themselves as against the nature of rape.

Brother Muslim, please mention the ahadees or verses telling so... you must be quoting about symptoms.... there would be a reply section at the end of link 1

Wa alaikum assalam wa rehmatullahi wa barakatuh...

We drs sometimes go for removing the whole organ or the limb, if someone is suffering from malignant cancer, the cancer which spreads...

This is mercy for that man and that body...The life is saved, the person would not suffer from further pain and distress, the body is saved from the malignant deposits...(sec carcinoma)

Similarly, when there is a sin , which would destroy the whole society and takes many lives,if it prevails in that society,it should be wiped off at once...

This is mercy too

wa alaikum assalam wa rehmatullahi wa barakatuh....

Alhmdulillah to see the site back.... Really, thanks to Allah