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Messages - mclinkin94

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316
Assalamualykum.

 Allah said:

        "And recite, [O Muhammad], what has been revealed to you of the Book of your Lord. There is no changer of His words, and never will you find in other than Him a refuge."[Quran 18:27](




Okay in the above verse Allah is saying that there is no change of His words. Brother you have to understand what Allah is referring to by using " His words". Here ''Words" means the promises. Its true that Allah doesn't change His promises. He will fulfill all the promise which He made to us in due time.

Thank you brother Farhan,

so "words" in that verse most likely carries the definition of "promises" because of the fact that it says "Never will you find in other than him a refuge". That does make more sense for it to mean promises.

So in the end Allah promised that he would abrogate revelations/verses, and he did. Thank you.

The problem that comes is that, that verse (18:27) talks about what has been revealed to you of the book and that there is no changer of his words. That makes it sound like you can't change the words in the book? How do you reconcile this? Perhaps "words" here doesn't mean "promises"?

317
salam alaikum

http://www.call-to-monotheism.com/refuting_the_argument_regarding_allah_s_words_do_not_change

Thank you brother Egyptian, I hope questions can always be in this form. May Allah bless you and bless Egypt.

 Thank you so much brother Sama for that article, I read it, but unfortunately I wasn't compelled by it. I also read this article here

http://www.call-to-monotheism.com/abrogation_and_the_unalterable_word_of_god__by_ansar_al__adl


^These are both very good articles and they cover a lot! But the best argument he makes is that it was Allah's word that he would abrogate his word and no one can change his word, therefore Allah will abrogate words as he promised.

But my problem is that it is still his word that he is changing and said that no one will change his word.

If I say that no one can change my word, and then I changed it, then I contradicted myself.

Is there a more proper definition of the Arabic word "kalimaat". Does it mean Allah's scripture because his word exists in it?

318
[Quran 18:27] And recite, [O Muhammad], what has been revealed to you of the Book of your Lord. There is no changer of His words, and never will you find in other than Him a refuge.

[Quran 2:106] We do not abrogate a verse or cause it to be forgotten except that We bring forth [one] better than it or similar to it. Do you not know that Allah is over all things competent?

I heard some say that there is no changer of Allah's word, except Allah. But the verse doesn't say that.

Can I get an explanation?

319
GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Help on Quranic verse 2:178
« on: August 27, 2013, 03:03:35 PM »
Thank you brother Farhan, the article doesn't directly answer the question because it is mostly focused on other things as well (besides the moral aspect).


I found this on Yahoo answers, I thought it would be rather helpful:

The problem is UNDERSTANDING the verse:

In actual the verse is DISCOURAGING capital punishment.

The Torah came with laws of equivalence in the sense:   An eye for eye, a hand for hand, an equal injury for an injury.

The Quran has a different law code: It DISCOURAGES capital punishment, but does NOT abolish it.

[2:178]
O you who believe, equivalence is the law decreed for you when dealing with murder - the free for the free, the slave for the slave, the female for the female. If one is pardoned by the victim's kin, an appreciative response is in order, and an equitable compensation shall be paid. This is an alleviation from your Lord and mercy. Anyone who transgresses beyond this incurs a painful retribution.

[2:179]
Equivalence is a life saving law for you, O you who possess intelligence, that you may be righteous.

The objective is to discourage capital punishment.

So IF the heir of the victim insist on capital punishment, then one has to see, if there is equivalence in the matter i.e. the guilty and the victim have to be of the same category i.e. free would be punished if the victim was also free. The guilty slave will be executed ONLY if the victim was also a slave. The guilty woman would be executed ONLY if the victim was also a woman. Else !!! the heir of the victim will HAVE TO accept a compensation, instead.

It is IMPERATIVE to understand AND FAIRLY LOGICAL to understand that you CANNOT punish Paul in place of Peter. This is MADNESS.
And this is a totally ABSURD explanation of idiot Muslims that the Quran in any way is trying to teach us basics in this regard. It is total madness.

Here is a good example that should give the shut up call to such idiots: As this is BASIC justice.

[12:78]
They said, "O you noble one, he has a father who is elderly; would you take one of us in his place? We see that you are a kind man."

[12:79]
He said, "GOD forbid that we should take other than the one in whose possession we found our goods. Otherwise, we would be unjust."




320
GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Help on Quranic verse 2:178
« on: August 26, 2013, 11:35:53 PM »
Quran 2:178 O you who have believed, prescribed for you is legal retribution for those murdered - the free for the free, the slave for the slave, and the female for the female. But whoever overlooks from his brother anything, then there should be a suitable follow-up and payment to him with good conduct. This is an alleviation from your Lord and a mercy. But whoever transgresses after that will have a painful punishment.

The objection is that it is not moral to allow an innocent slave or female to die just because you killed a slave/female.

Can I get an explanation?


321
What's the name of the music tune, dear brother? :)

I Honestly don't know, I actually took it from another youtube video recording. If you want the file, I uploaded it to my blog in a hidden page at:
http://answeringislamicskeptics.weebly.com/music-file.html

Brothers you even have my consent to do the necessary edits to the video to make it appear to your liking and add it to your channel. I uploaded the windows live file for that reason as well.


If I am able to find the name of the song, I will let you know.


322
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uj4DS_QQYfo

^I uploaded it 10 minutes ago. Opinions and objections are really helpful!

323
salam alaikum

More appropriate translation:
Glory be to Him who created all the pairs; of what the earth produces, and of their own selves, and of what they do not know.
http://corpus.quran.com/wordbyword.jsp?chapter=36&verse=36

i.e He created all the existing  pairs, so what !

I apologize for my ignorance in Arabic, but can you explain why this is a more appropriate translation?

Because it literally reads: "Glory be to the one who created pairs all of what grows the earth".

Thanks brother.

324
Quran 36:36 Glory to Allah, Who created in pairs all things that the earth produces, as well as their own (human) kind and (other) things of which they have no knowledge.

This verse cannot be referring to matter/anti-matter because it is talking about things that the Earth produces!

Bacteria don't have a pair.

Can anyone help with this verse please?

EDIT: There are obviously things we could attribute to this verse:

Best one (this one makes the most sense, if there is one natural phenomena that describes this verse and everything the Earth produces made in pairs, it is logically NOT a contradiction ):

If you are produced from the Earth, you are either a Prokaryote or a Eukaryote. (pair)-All cells are either one. 


In a sense all things that the Earth produces (living things) is created in a pair, either prokarotic or Eukaryotic. Even humans are created in a pair (male and female) and there are other things we don't know created in pairs. So by utilizing natural phenomena that shows this verse is true, logically, there is no contradiction.

Others:
If you are a bacteria and you are produced from the Earth, you divide into a pair..

325
Thank you brothers! You guys defeated that perfectly and this article is also perfect:

http://www.call-to-monotheism.com/refuting_the_argument_regarding_the_qur_an_ordering_the_jews_and_christians_to_judge_by_their_scriptures

If I get any more questions, I will ask here.   :)

326
Bump!

If the Quran says the bible is corrupted then please explain these verses:

Quran 5:43 But how is it that they come to you for judgement while they have the Torah, in which is the judgement of Allah ? Then they turn away, [even] after that; but those are not [in fact] believers.

^Isn't Allah saying the Torah is to be followed?

Quran 5:47 And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein. And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed - then it is those who are the defiantly disobedient.


^Why let the people of the Gospel judge a corrupted book?

Brothers, please explain.

327
GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: hi again, some help plz!
« on: August 21, 2013, 06:23:05 PM »
If you have any specific points you want to share, we will debunk them right hare  :D

328
If you think there is a contradiction in the Quran, then ask the following:

Have I made any unverified assumptions?
Have I considered all possible definitions of the words?
Have I considered all possible translations of the words?
Have I considered all grammatical syntactic definitions/renderings?

329
GENERAL TOPICS | BOARD ANNOUNCEMENTS / Re: Quran and Prophets
« on: August 19, 2013, 04:08:07 PM »
Salam,

A Hindu named Rahul Raj criticized Qur’an for mentioning only 25 prophets and most of them were sent to Children of Israel.

A ridiculous objection about Qur’an is,

“Some Nabees’ names not mentioned” (Al-Moomin 40:78)

It is not “Some”. Allah only mentioned the names of 0.02% of His Nabees out of 124,000 Prophets and forgot to mention the names of 99.98% of them.


Please give your answers for rebuttal.

I really do not understand how this invalidates the fact that Allah sent many messengers. The verses that say so are clear.

I think the Hindu may just be asking why did Allah mention only those that were sent to the people of Israel?

-Answer:

1.) The people of Israel were preferred to carry the message:
   2:47   O Children of Israel! call to mind the (special) favor which I bestowed upon You and that I preferred you to all others (for My message).

      2:122     O Children of Israel! call to mind the special favor which I bestowed upon you and that I preferred you to all others (for my message).     


So although Allah preferred them to send the message. So that means Allah sent the most messengers to them, and the people of Israel were the most successful in upholding Allah's message. So the Quran would obviously reference that-especially. As for the other messengers, Allah would simply acknowledge them.

2.) Relevance: Some stories are irrelevant to mention. The people of Israel's stories are very relevant. The other messengers are not necessary to go in depth about them, so Allah will simply acknowledge them.

330
I am indeed ignorant in the life of the prophet, no lie here 

Consider my posts here as a desire to learn about it :)

About that video, I just wanted to share with others what I observed--but many probably already know.

Thanks. May God bless you, thanks for your other answer as well (on Abu Lahab)

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