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Is there human equality in the Bible in both the Old and the New Testaments?

The sections of this article are:

1-  A brief look at the Old Testament.
2-  Which has more value, a slave or an animal?
3-  Does the Bible order its followers to inherit the slaves and their children?
4-  Rebuttal to "Answering Islam" team on Leviticus 25:44-46.
5-  My further rebuttal to the Christian "Answering Islam" team.
6-  What about the New Testament?
7-  What does the NIV Bible's Historians and Theologians say about the validity of the Books and Gospels above?
8-  The history of the Church allowing and promoting Slavery.
9-  Few thoughts.
10-  What about women?
11-  Conclusion.

 

 

 

1-  A brief look at the Old Testament:

Let us look at Exodus 21:12 "Anyone who strikes a man and kills him shall surely be put to death."  This verse from the Bible is very straight forward.  If you kill an innocent human being, then you must die.

Let us look at both Exodus 20:13, and Deuteronomy 5:17 "You shall not murder."   Both verses have the same exact quote, and they both order not to kill normal human beings.

Let us look at Deuteronomy 27:25 "Cursed is the man who accepts a bribe to kill an innocent person. Then all the people shall say, 'Amen!'"   This verse and the above verses so far are talking about normal human beings.  They equalize between normal human beings.

Now let us look at Exodus 21:20-21 "If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property."   Notice how the Bible doesn't recognize the slave male or female as a normal human being.  If the master beats his servant to death, then the master will not get the death punishment or penalty.  He will only be punished, but not to death.  This punishment mighty be even a light one such as a single light whip since the punishment was not determined.

Let us look at Deuteronomy 24:7 "If a man is caught kidnapping one of his brother Israelites and treats him as a slave or sells him, the kidnapper must die. You must purge the evil from among you."  This verse quite clearly states that the Israeli is better in human value than any other human being in the eyes of GOD.  If an Israeli is treated as a slave, then we would have the world's greatest problems.  But however, it is ok to treat others as slaves, and to kill them too according to Exodus 21:20 above.

Let us look at Leviticus 25:39 "If one of your countrymen becomes poor among you and sells himself to you, do not make him work as a slave.This verse seems to despise the slaves by ordering people to be merciful on others from the same tribe and not to treat them bad and not to make them work as slaves.  It is quite obvious that his verse doesn't believe in human equality.

 

 

2-   Which has more value, a slave or an animal?

Let us look at Exodus 23:12 "Six days do your work, but on the seventh day do not work, so that your ox and your donkey may rest and the slave born in your household, and the alien as well, may be refreshed."  We can obviously see from this verse that the slave and the animal have the same value.  A human slave in the Bible is an animal and not a human being.  This verse puts the animals and the slave in the same category.  It doesn't separate them.

Consider the following from the book of Exodus:

Let us look at Exodus 21:28 "If a bull gores a man or a woman to death, the bull must be stoned to death, and its meat must not be eaten. But the owner of the bull will not be held responsible."

Let us also look at Exodus 21:29 "If, however, the bull has had the habit of goring and the owner has been warned but has not kept it penned up and it kills a man or woman, the bull must be stoned and the owner also must be put to death."

Let us look at Exodus 21:31 "This law also applies if the bull gores a son or daughter."

Now, let us look at this verse Exodus 21:32 "If the bull gores a male or female slave, the owner must pay thirty shekels of silver to the master of the slave, and the bull must be stoned. (but not to death)"

Notice how in Exodus 21:28, if a bull gores a normal human being, then it must be put to death.  Also, notice that Exodus 21:29 punishes the owner for not stopping the bull's habit by stoning him to death when his bull kills a normal human being.  

Notice however, that in Exodus 21:32, if a bull gores a slave male or female to death, then the bull will only be stoned but not to death.  Unlike in Exodus 21:28, the bull will survive.  

I think we can conclude from the above that according to the Bible, even an animal has more value in it than a human slave.

 

 

3-   Does the Bible order its followers to inherit the slaves and their children?

Let us look at Leviticus 25:44-46 "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." 

What kind of a human value does the Bible give to slaves?  If slaves and their children must be inherited and passed down to newer generations as slaves, then how in the world will they ever gain their freedom??  Does the Bible believe in Freedom?  Does the Bible believe in liberating human beings from slavery?  Apparently it does not !!!.

 

 

4-  Rebuttal to "Answering Islam" team on Leviticus 25:44-46:

Regarding my points on Leviticus 25:44-46, here is what the anti-Islamic "Answering Islam" team wrote:

"For one thing the word for slave isn't present in the Hebrew text of the Bible, the NIV translated the word for servant in Hebrew as slave. Read a Jewish translation of these same verses: 

And as for thy bondmen, and thy bondmaids, whom thou mayest have: of the nations that are round about you, of them shall ye buy bondmen and bondmaids. Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them may ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they have begotten in your land; and they may be your possession. And ye may make them an inheritance for your children after you, to hold for a possession: of them may ye take your bondmen for ever; but over your brethren the children of Israel ye shall not rule, one over another, with rigour. JPS Leviticus 25:44-46 

Notice that the word for slave in the NIV doesn't mean slave in the Jewish translation, it means servant or bondman."

When I looked up the word "bondmen" in www.dictionary.com, I found it to mean: 

1- A male bondservant. (http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=bondmen). 

And when I looked up the word "bondservant", I found it to mean:

1- A person obligated to service without wages.
2- A slave or serf.

(http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=bondservant)

So, how is it possible for the NIV Bible to be in error when they used the word "slave"?

Ironically, the one who wrote this from their team is Quennel Gale, an African American Christian.  He should pretty much know the English vocabulary very well from his writings in green above and other writings that I have rebuttals for on my site.  He is obviously pretending to be naive in the English language to cover up for the slavery-promoting Bible.

Do you know what the word "naive" mean Quennel?

(http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=naive)

 

 

5-  My further rebuttal to the Christian "Answering Islam" team:

Let us look at what they said:

"In the OT the Bible required that the servant obey his owner, however what Osama fells to tell you is that Muhammad allowed slavery for the sole purpose of free sex and prostitution, along with other matters:

Muslim 32 The Prophet said: "When the slave runs away from his master, his prayer is not accepted"; he is an infidel."

One thing, the reference to where they got the quote from is not complete! This is bogus and unacceptable in the professional world of dialogues. Notice here also that they inserted the words "he is an infidel" to look like part of the quote. Our beloved Prophet said "Your slaves are your brothers", and also said "if you beat your slave, then you will go to hell".  To see the references to the Sayings of our Prophet peace be upon him, visit http://www.answering-christianity.com/human.htm.

The idea of "slavery for sex or prostitution" is nothing but a big lie created by the haters of Islam, and it contradicts what the Noble Quran teaches:

Let us look at Noble Verse 24:33 "Let those who find not the wherewithal for marriage keep themselves chaste, until God gives them means out of His grace. And if any of your slaves ask for a deed in writing (to enable them to earn their freedom for a certain sum), give them such a deed if ye know any good in them: yea, give them something yourselves out of the means which God has given to you. But force not your maids to prostitution when they desire chastity, in order that ye may make a gain in the goods of this life. But if anyone compels them, yet, after such compulsion, is God, Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful (to them),"  In this Noble Verse, we see that if a slave requests his freedom from his Muslim master, then his master not only must help him earn his freedom if there is good in the Slave, but also pay him money so the slave can have a good start in his free life.  We also see in this Noble Verse that slaves are not to be forced into prostitution in anyway.

Now let's see where the idea of prostitution of slaves comes from:

First of all, the slave is his master's property.  The master can do anything with him:

Let us look at Exodus 21:7-8 "And in case a man should sell his daughter as a slave girl, she will not go out in the way that the slave men go out. If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master so that he doesn't designate her as a concubine but causes her to be redeemed, he will not be entitled to sell her to a foreign people in his treacherously dealing with her." 

When I looked up the word "concubine" in www.dictionary.com, I found:

1- Law. A woman who cohabits with a man.
2- In certain societies, such as imperial China, a woman contracted to a man as a secondary wife, often having few legal rights and low social status. 

(http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=concubine)  

And when I looked up the word "cohabits", I found:

1- To live together as spouses.
2- To live together in a sexual relationship when not legally married.

(http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=cohabits)

So in the Bible, the FATHER HAS THE RIGHT TO SELL HIS DAUGHTER TO BE FORCED TO SLEEP WITH OTHER MEN according to Exodus 21:7-8, and if she tries to be redeemed (to be set free), then her punishment is to be STUCK WITH HER MASTER!

In the Noble Quran, in Noble Verse 24:33 above, we clearly saw that the slave has the right to request his freedom and be granted his/her freedom and be given money on top of it so he/she can stand on their feet.

More on concubines in the bible:

"If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.  (From the NIV Bible, Exodus 21:20-21)"  

In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.

In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.

In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60 concubines.

 

Further quotes from the Christian "Answering Islam" team:

"Hadith Malik 361:1216 When the master or husband of a slave-girl dies, her iddah (period of waiting to remarry) is two months and five days.

Hadith Malik 362:1221 Ibn Fahd said: "I have some slave girls who are better than my wives, but I do not desire that they should all become pregnant. Shall I do azl (withdrawal) with them?" Hajjaj said: "They are your fields of cultivation. If you wish to irrigate them then do so, if not keep them dry."

Here Muhammad tells us that if a slave runs away from his master, he is an infidel!! And Allah won't accept his prayers!! What if his master is beating him, just like the Bible says? Based on Muhammad's merits he wouldn't even have his prayers answered by God!!! Wow!" 

Those references are not of our beloved Prophet peace be upon him, nor they are reliable Muslim references. What ever Mr. Hajjaj said is good for him, but he certainly doesn't in anyway represent our Prophet peace be upon him.

The "Answering Islam" team said that it was a teaching of our Prophet. How can you be that pathetic and dare to assume that your reader is stupid?!

Slavery didn't start with Islam, but Islam is the religion that ended it! Please visit "Human Equality and Liberation of Slaves" (http://www.answering-christianity.com/human.htm) in Islam to see the Islamic attitude toward freeing slaves.

Note: Only in Islam's Noble Quran (scripture) and Sayings of our beloved Prophet you find direct commands to freeing slaves (http://www.answering-christianity.com/human.htm). Show me one bible verse that directly orders its followers to buy slaves and free them? Only Islam did that.

"Unlike Islam slavery in the Bible was voluntary....."

Voluntary?! Let us look at Leviticus 25:44-46 "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." 

What kind of a human value does the Bible give to slaves? If slaves and their children must be inherited and passed down to newer generations as slaves, then how in the world will they ever gain their freedom?? Does the Bible believe in Freedom? Does the Bible believe in liberating human beings from slavery? Apparently it does not!

I'd like to see the hypocrites of the "Answering Islam" team explain to us what they HONESTLY feel about "and can make them slaves for life" in their bible?  And how does it prove their point on slaves in the bible are enslaved "voluntarily"?

"Sunan Abu Dawud, Book 19, #2991:

Anas said:

“A beautiful slave girl fell to Dihyah. The apostle purchased her for seven slaves. He then gave her to Umm Sulaim for decoration her and preparing her for marriage.” 

Sunan Abu Dawud, Book 19, #2992: 

Anas said:

Captives were gathered at Khaibar. Dihyah came and said, “apostle, give me a slave girl form the captives.” He said, “Go and take a slave girl.” He took Safiyyah. A man then came to the prophet and said: “You gave Safiyyah chief lady of Quraizah and al-Nadir to Dihyah?” This is according to the version of Yaqub. Then the agreed version goes: “She is worthy of you.” He (Muhammad) said, “Call him along with her.” When the prophet looked at her, he said to him: “Take another slave girl from the captives.” The prophet then set her free and married her. 

And, 

Narrated ‘Abdul ‘Aziz: 

Anas said, 'When Allah's Apostle invaded Khaibar, we offered the Fajr prayer there yearly in the morning) when it was still dark. The Prophet rode and Abu Talha rode too and I was riding behind Abu Talha. The Prophet passed through the lane of Khaibar quickly and my knee was touching the thigh of the Prophet. He uncovered his thigh and I saw the whiteness of the thigh of the Prophet. When he entered the town, he said, ‘Allahu Akbar! Khaibar is ruined. Whenever we approach near a (hostile) nation (to fight) then evil will be the morning of those who have been warned.' He repeated this thrice. The people came out for their jobs and some of them said, ‘Muhammad (has come).’ (Some of our companions added, “With his army.”) We conquered Khaibar, took the captives, and the booty was collected. Dihya came and said, ‘O Allah's Prophet! Give me a slave girl from the captives.’ The Prophet said, 'Go and take any slave girl.' He took Safiya bint Huyai. A man came to the Prophet and said, ‘O Allah's Apostles! You gave Safiya bint Huyai to Dihya and she is the chief mistress of the tribes of Quraiza and An-Nadir and she befits none but you.' So the Prophet said, 'Bring him along with her.’ So Dihya came with her and when the Prophet saw her, he said to Dihya, ‘Take any slave girl other than her from the captives.’ Anas added: The Prophet then manumitted her and married her.” 

Thabit asked Anas, “O Abu Hamza! What did the Prophet pay her (as Mahr)?” He said, “Her self was her Mahr for he manumitted her and then married her.” Anas added, “While on the way, Um Sulaim dressed her for marriage (ceremony) and at night she sent her as a bride to the Prophet. So the Prophet was a bridegroom and he said, ‘Whoever has anything (food) should bring it.’ He spread out a leather sheet (for the food) and some brought dates and others cooking butter. (I think he (Anas) mentioned As-SawTq). So they prepared a dish of Hais (a kind of meal). And that was Walrma (the marriage banquet) of Allah's Apostle.” (Bukhari, Volume 1, Book 8, Number 367)"

Notice here that the Prophet peace be upon him married her. Unlike the bible's prophets who each had HUNDREDS of slaves, Muhammad peace be upon him MARRIED HER. He gave her a beautiful honor. As I proved above, Islam's attitude toward slaves is to eventually free them. This is opposite from the bible that orders its followers to inherit slaves: 

Leviticus 25:44-46 "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

Again, I'd like to see the hypocrites of the "Answering Islam" team explain to us what they HONESTLY feel about "and can make them slaves for life" in their bible?

"Muhammad the Racist against Black people!!
Black skin and Creation:

"Abu Darda reported that the HOLY PROPHET SAID: Allah created Adam when he created him (sic). Then He stroke (sic) his right shoulder and took out a white race as if they were seeds, and He stroke (sic) HIS LEFT SHOULDER and took out a BLACK RACE as if they were coals. Then He said to those who were in his right side: Towards paradise and I don't care. He said to those who were ON HIS LEFT SHOULDER: Towards Hell and I don't care. - Ahmad" (Mishkat ul-Masabih, translated by Karim, v. iii, p. 117) 

FROM IBN ISHAQ'S "SIRAT RASULALLAH", translated as, "THE LIFE OF MUHAMMAD" by A. Guillaume, page 243. 

"I have heard that it was of him that the apostle said, "Whoever wants to see Satan let him take a look at Nabtal b. al-Harith!" He was a study black man with long flowing hair, inflamed eyes, and dark ruddy cheeks. He used to come and talk to the apostle and listen to him and then carry what he had said to the hypocrites. It was he who said: "Muhammad is all ears: if anyone tells him anything he believes it." God sent down concerning him: "And of them are those who annoy the prophet and say he is all ears, Say: God ears for you. He believes in God and trusts the believers and is a mercy for those of you who believe; and those who annoy the apostle of God for them there is a painful punishment." (Sura 9:61)"

The above doesn't in anyway suggest that black people are destined for hell, nor they come from the trustful Sayings of our beloved Prophet in "Sahih Bukhari", "Sahih Muslim" and "Sunan Abu Dawud" volumes! The quotes don't at all come from reliable Islamic resources.  I'd like to see this quote existing in any of the volumes that I mentioned.  Anyone can come up with a book and make up a lie against our Prophet peace be upon him.

Many lies had been inserted in history against our beloved Prophet peace be upon him; "A section of the People of the Book [Jews and Christians] say: Believe in the morning what is revealed to the believers (Muslims), but reject it at the end of the day; perchance they may (themselves) turn back (from Islam).  (The Noble Quran, 3:72)" 

The above false claims clearly contradict what Allah Almighty said in the Noble Quran in the following Noble Verse:

"O mankind! We created you from a single (pair) of a male and a female, and made you into nations and tribes [people with different cultures, races and religions], that ye may know each other. Verily the most honoured of you in the sight of Allah is the most righteous of you.  And Allah has full knowledge and is well-acquainted.  (The Noble Quran, 49:13)"

(http://www.answering-christianity.com/human.htm).

 

 

6-   What about the New Testament? 

Unfortunately, there is no equality between human beings in Christianity!  Christians like to think that the Bible honors all human beings and loves all human beings, but the reality proves otherwise.

Let us look at Galatians 4:28-31 "Now you, brothers, like Isaac, are children of promise. At that time the son born in the ordinary way persecuted the son born by the power of the Spirit. It is the same now.  But what does the Scripture say? 'Get rid of the slave woman and her son, for the slave woman's son will never share in the inheritance with the free woman's son.'  Therefore, brothers, we are not children of the slave woman, but of the free woman.This verse from the New Testament despises children who are born from slave mothers.  This verse doesn't recognize children born from slave mothers as normal sons because they are not allowed to inherit.  This verse doesn't recognize slaves as equal to normal human beings.  This verse agrees fully 100% with slavery and enslaving people.

Let us look at Philemon 15-19 "Perhaps the reason he was separated from you for a little while was that you might have him back for good no longer as a slave, but better than a slave, as a dear brother. He is very dear to me but even dearer to you, both as a man and as a brother in the Lord.  So if you consider me a partner, welcome him as you would welcome me.  If he has done you any wrong or owes you anything, charge it to me.  I, Paul, am writing this with my own hand. I will pay it back not to mention that you owe me your very self."  This verse is another proof that the Bible (1) Looks as slaves as sub humans or animals as was shown in Exodus 23:12 and Leviticus 25:46, (2) A slave is a despised person that he will never ever be recognized as a normal human being unless he becomes a Christian.  If the slave refuses to become a Christian, then he will never gain his freedom, and he will never be even looked at as a human being; he must always be treated as an animal by the Christians.

Let us look at 1 Corinthians 7 "Were you a slave when you were called? Don't let it trouble you although if you can gain your freedom, do so.   For he who was a slave when he was called by the Lord is the Lord's freedman; similarly, he who was a free man when he was called is Christ's slave."  In this verse, Paul was asking the person "Were you a slave?" meaning Were you something bad and not normal?

Also "...if you can gain your freedom, do so... (1 Corinthians 7)" which means that the New Testament will not help anyone nor will call any Christian to fight for the rights of any slave to be freed.  The slave will simply have to either live as a slave and die as a slave, or fight for his freedom against Christians.

Let us look at 1 Timothy 6:1 "All who are under the yoke of slavery should consider their masters worthy of full respect, so that God's name and our teaching may not be slandered."

Matthew 10:24 "A student is not greater than the teacher. A slave is not greater than the master."

Let us look at 1 Peter 2:18 "Slaves, submit yourselves to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh." 

Let us look at Colossians 3:22 "Slaves, obey your earthly masters in everything; and do it, not only when their eye is on you and to win their favor, but with sincerity of heart and reverence for the Lord." 

 

 

7-  What does the NIV Bible's Historians and Theologians say about the validity of the Books and Gospels above?

One thing that Jews and Christians have yet to prove is the validity of the books and gospels of the Bible.  The Bible is full of historical corruptions.  Indeed, man-made cultural laws had entered the bible and turned it into a big lie.  So to take the above verses and the books of the bible as The True Living Words of GOD Almighty when they are nothing but doubtful man-made hoax is indeed A CRIME AGAINST GOD AND HIS REVELATIONS.

To see the actual quotes from the NIV Bible's commentary itself regarding each and every book and gospel in the bible (one by one), please visit Just who were the real authors of the Bible?

Here is a sample quote from the many that I listed from the NIV Bible's Commentary:

About the book of Deuteronomy: "The book itself testifies that, for the most part, Moses wrote it (1:5; 31:9,22,24), and other OT books agree (1Ki 2:3, 8:53; 2ki 14:6; 18:12)--though the preamble (1:1-5) may have been written by someone else, and the report of Moses' death (ch.34) was almost certainly written by someone else.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 240)"

As we clearly see, there is ample evidence that proves beyond the shadow of the doubt that Moses was not the sole author of the book.  He couldn't have possibly have written about his own death.  This book is obviously corrupted!  How can you claim that the book of Deuteronomy was indeed all revealed by GOD Almighty?   If you're not sure, and you still insist on your claim, then you are committing a crime against GOD Almighty's Revelations.

(www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm)

The NIV Bible Theologians and Historians also commented on other books of the Bible to be corrupted by the scribes:

"...portions of the book were probably added by scribes or editors from later periods of Israel's history...  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 183)"

Other commentaries from the NIV Bible Theologians and Historians on many of the other books of the bible:

"Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain."

"The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy."

(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322).

"The author is unknown.  Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"

"There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings."

"Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy."

(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459).

"Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"

(www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm)

and so on......

The Jewish scribes had very badly corrupted the Bible and turned it into a big lie.    That is why GOD Almighty said:

"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)

"How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie.   (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"

In either translation above, we clearly see that the Bible has too many narrated stories and man-made cultural laws that were inserted into it that were not Divine Revelations from GOD Almighty.  The following sites have tons of details that prove that [1], [2], [3], [4].

It's quite obvious that the Bible is more like a man made cultural book than a divine book that is meant to be for all times and all places.  Anyway, the Bible was not even written by its original authors.  That is why you see things such as "And Moses went up to the mountain...." instead of "And I [Moses] went up to the mountain....", or "And Jesus said to Matthew...." instead of "And Jesus said to me [Matthew]...."  Most of the Books and Gospels of the Bible were written by third party people that were not even chosen by GOD, which makes the Bible just a cultural history book rather than a divine book from GOD Almighty.  Please see Question #3 to see why Allah Almighty allowed for the Bible of today to be corrupted.

 

 

8-  The history of the Church allowing and promoting Slavery:

This section was sent to me by brother Muhammad; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him.

From: http://www.khyber.demon.co.uk/history/africa/slavery.htm  

...It was this Church that initially ordered the slavery of Africans - the Africans who were enslaved were Muslims!

In 1457, the Council of Cardinals met in Holland where they sanctioned, as a righteous and progressive idea, the enslavement of Africans for the purpose of their conversion to Christianity and exploitation in the labor market as chattel property. This satanic scheme speedily gained the sanctimonious blessing of the Pharaoh (Pope) and became a standard policy of the Catholic Church, and later of the Protestant churches, enduring for three centuries: thus the ghastly traffic in human misery was anointed with the oil of pontifical righteousness in Jesus' name.

A bull of Pharaoh Nicholas 5th instructed his followers to `attack, subject, and reduce to perpetual slavery the Saracens, Pagans and other enemies of Christ, southward from Cape Bojador and including all the coast of Guinea'.

In fact, most of the Africans who were caught up in the Atlantic slave trade came from West Africa, an area roughly from Senegal River in the north to the Congo River in the South.

But why were West Africans specifically targeted ? Because they were Muslim.

Following the destruction of Baghdad in 1258 by Christian-backed Mongols, the only remaining intellectual Islamic states were in Africa. Africa was home to several Islamic universities, namely Fez, Timbuktu, Jenne and Al-Azhar, with many Faculties including Law, Medicine, Grammar, Building, Crafts, Manufacturing and Geography, and they attracted scholars from all over the Muslim world. Even though, two-thirds of the world's supply of gold came from West Africa during the Middle Ages, more profit was made from the sale of books [Pg. 73, 24]. Arabic was not only the language of religion and learning, but it was also the language of trade and commerce [pg.220, 40]. On his way to Mecca in the 1320s, Mansa Musa of Mali stated that his brother, Abu
Bukhari, had sent two expeditions, one of four hundred ships and the other of two thousand, across the Atlantic.

This is not surprising because Islam is a universal religion. Allah Almighty is the Lord of the East, and the West [73:9]. Furthermore, the Last Prophet (saw) had come for the whole of mankind, the Last Message had been delivered and Islam had been completed [5:4]. Muslims were inclined to do: trade, missionary work to the whole of mankind, defend borders; expand the Islamic State, migrate (the Islamic calendar reminds of Migration), etc.

In addition, Muslims were sailors, geographers, astronomers, scientists. For example, it was reported in part 3 of the Weekend Section of Financial Times November 16 / November 17 1996, that in 793 AD, Al-Biruni, an Afghan scientist in the Punjab had calculated the earth's circumference [54]. Thus, Muslims had already ascertained that the earth was round, 700 years before the Europeans. More importantly, Muslims traveled using the stars and
the winds as the following Ayats (Verses) from the Holy Quran reveal:

6:97. It is He Who maketh the stars (as beacons) for you that ye may guide yourselves with their help through the dark spaces of land and sea. We detail Our Signs for people who know.

10:22. He it is Who enabled you to traverse through land and sea; so that ye even board ships they sail with them with a favourable wind...

30 46. Among His Signs is this that He sends the Winds as heralds of Glad Tidings giving you a taste of His (Grace and) Mercy that the ships may sail by His Command and that ye may seek of His Bounty in order that ye may be grateful.

Furthermore, Ancient Egyptians knew the world was round and one of the first countries that the Arabs brought the Last Message to, was Egypt in 641/2 AD. One of the first Islamic universities was built in Egypt, namely Al-Azhar. Furthermore, it is alleged that Muslims studied Greek works including Ptolemy who wrote the world was round.

Unlike Christians then, Muslims faced few obstacles to trade and spreading Islam throughout the world. When the Church discovered that Muslims from West Africa were actually doing so, they launched the Naval Crusade and the brutal slavery of West Africans.

We also find that during the Scramble for Africa / colonization of Africa, two countries were totally unaffected - Liberia and Ethiopia. In fact Ethiopia doubled the size of its empire during European colonization. Why ? They were CHRISTIAN countries!

 

 

9-  Few thoughts:

Perhaps that is why the White Christian societies had always had Black African slaves! 

The Church in Europe had always allowed enslaving Africans.  The African slaves were brought to the U.S tied in chains after the church gave the OK on that!.

Perhaps the Ku Klux Klan ideas of enslaving Africans are not all Biblically false after all, since they claim that they support their argument from the Bible!.

 

 

10-   So what about women?

Let us look at Leviticus 20:15 "If a man has sexual relations with an animal, he must be put to death, and you must kill the animal."

And let us look at Leviticus 20:16 "If a woman approaches an animal to have sexual relations with it, kill both the woman and the animal. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads."

Notice that in Leviticus 20:15 the man has to be caught having sex with an animal in order for him to be put to death. We have to be sure 100% beyond the shadow of the doubt to kill him.

Notice however in Leviticus 20:16 that if a woman only looks SUSPICIOUS and not necessarily get caught having sex with an animal, she would still be put to death. We do not have to be sure 100% beyond the shadow of the doubt with her in order for us to kill her.

Hmmm, very interesting !!!!  Don't Leviticus 20:15 and Leviticus 20:16 prove that the Bible prefers to put women to death whenever an opportunity presents itself?

Please visit:  Raping, enslaving, killing and selling women are all allowed and encouraged in the Bible.

 

 

11-   Conclusion:

The Bible in both the Old Testament and the New Testament doesn't recognize slaves as human beings.  The Bible also in both the Old and the New Testaments encourages slavery and enslaving people.  It doesn't encourage nor command Christians to fight for others' rights and to liberate them from slavery.  Instead, the Bible repeatedly talks about slaves as worthless sub humans and animals who must not gain their freedom unless they convert to Christianity. 

 

 

Further sites to research:

http://www.khyber.demon.co.uk/history/africa/slavery.htm

http://www.religioustolerance.org/slavery.htm

http://www.bungalow.com/slavery.html

Bible, Race & Slavery.

Please visit:  Slavery in Islam.  Total Justice and human equality in Islam.

 

 

 

 

 

Back to Human equality in Islam V.S. Christianity.


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