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Counter Rebuttal to Matt Slick's Response to My Rebuttal to His Article 'Questions for Muslims' - Q2

By
Bassam Zawadi

You can access Matt Slick's response http://www../islam/rebutquestions2.htm to my rebuttal https://www.answering-christianity.com/bassam_zawadi/rebuttal_to_slick_3.htm to his original article http://www../islam/questions2.htm

Matt Slick said:

Bassam Zawadi's Original:  Introduction This article is in response to Matt Slick's article questions2.htm.  God willing I will try my best to provide answers to the questions posted by Matt Slick. The answers mostly are not of my own. I just provide them.
     Matt Slick said:   The Qur'an states that you shall marry only up to four women:  "If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with orphans, marry women of your choice, two, or three, or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one, or that which your right hands possess..." (4:3).

1. If the Qur'an is eternal, having been written on the table in heaven, then the four wife limit was an eternal decree. 
2. Question:  Why did Muhammad have 12 wives if the Qur'an says to have only four?  Khadija, sawda, Aesah (8 years old), Omm Salama, Hafsa, Zaynab (originally the wife of Muhammad's adopted son), Jowayriya, Omm Habiba, Safiya, Maymuna, Fatima, Hend, Asma (of Saba), Zaynab, Habla, Asma?

     My Response:  Taken from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muhammad's_marriages
     Many of Muhammad's detractors have criticized his conduct in having more wives than his followers. During the Medina period, he received a new revelation telling Muslim men to marry no more than four wives, and that only if they could treat them all equally. A flurry of divorces followed, as Muslim men gave the extra wives their liberty. Muhammad, however, kept all his wives. He had nine or ten wives at his death. Is this unfair? Did Muhammad selfishly exempt himself from rules imposed on others?
     Muslim scholars note that the Qur'an exempts Muhammad from the general decree.

• O Prophet! We have made lawful to thee thy wives to whom thou hast paid their dowers. (Al-Ahzab 33: 50)

     They explain this as a kind concession to Muhammad's wives. If he were to divorce them, no one else could marry them, and they would be left alone until their deaths. The prophet's wives were revered as "Umm ul Mo'mayneen" or Mothers of the Believers; it would be tantamount to incest for a believer to marry one of Muhammad's widows. So the Qur'an commands:

• Nor is it right for you that ye should annoy God's Apostle, or that ye should marry his widows after him at any time. Truly such a thing is in God's sight an enormity. (Al-Ahzab 33: 53)

     If Muhammad is to be criticized for breaking the Qur'anic rules, he is exempted by those same rules.
     Those who regard him as the inventor of these Qur'anic rules see this as a case of a leader enjoying privileges he denied to his followers. However, it may be noted that other traditions show him as content with a humble, almost ascetic lifestyle. In most things he lived as simply as the poorest of his followers.
     For more details visit the following links 
http://www.islamonline.net/English/In_Depth/mohamed/1424/misconception/article10.shtml
http://www.wefound.org/texts/Muhammad_files/Muhammad2.htm

     Matt Slick's Response:  All sorts of justifications might be offered to excuse Mohammed for having more wives than anyone else. The problem is that there is no way to verify that Islam is true because it rests on the claims of Mohammed. There is no eyewitness account of a resurrection of Muhammad, nor are there eyewitness accounts of his miracles, or his walking on water, nor are there any fulfilled prophecies concerning him.  Instead, we have the word of Mohammed who, we know from history, would rob from caravans and said it was OK to lie.¹  It is this person who robbed caravans, advocated lying, killed many people, and claimed to have a revelation from God saying that he could have multiple wives and then he limited the number for his followers.  That is suspicious to me.
     Of course, if Muslims answer the question based upon the Koran, than anything the Quran says would be a justifiable excuse. Mohammed frequently had newer revelations that abrogated previous ones and oftentimes these latter revelations were seemingly convenient for the situation at hand. Instead of the revelations being permanent and unchanging, they were modified -- which is exactly what you would expect from someone who is making up a religion.
     What is interesting is that Mr. Zawadi says "it may be noted that other traditions show him as content with a humble, almost ascetic lifestyle." If that is so, then why did Mohammed claim a fifth of the spoils attained through wars and battles levied upon the people around him? Mohammed was extremely rich and very powerful and he had a lot of women around him. This is hardly on ascetic lifestyle and is in direct contradiction to what is a Zawadi is saying.

My Response:

The Quran is eternal in its existence, but not in its implementations. The core teachings of it, such as worshipping one God alone has always been there. But for Sharia law practices such as marrying up to four wives, praying 5 times a day at specific times, fasting Ramadan might not have always been there. The Quran was meant to be the last revelation to mankind. Therefore, God did not send it down till he did. It was God's divine plan. 

As for the Prophet's multiple marriages. The Prophet had privileges and limitations set by God for him. For example, the use of Miswak, Witr prayer and Qiyam Al Layl (prayer in two thirds of the night) were made obligatory on the Prophet but not on us Muslims. Similarly, the marrying up to 4 wives were made obligatory on us Muslims but not on the Prophet. 

But you have to realize that with this privilege came a limitation for the Prophet. According to Surah 33:52, the Prophet was not allowed to marry anymore women or to divorce his current wives. But us Muslims could marry and divorce. So the Prophet's privilege is now balanced out with a limitation.

Matt Slick talks about the fifth of spoils going to Muhammad. But Muhammad never kept the money for himself. Read this article for the evidence. https://www.answering-christianity.com/muhammads_share.htm

Matt Slick said:

     Zawadi's Original:  Matt Slick said: The Qur'an says that Allah created the heavens and earth in six days.  "Your Guardian Lord is Allah, who created the heavens and the earth in six days..." (7:54)  See also, 10:3.

1. 41:9 - "Say:  Is it that ye deny him who created the earth in two days..."
   1. Question:  Which should we believe, the Bible or the Qur'an?  The Bible says God created the earth in one day, the xth day (xxx).
2. 41:10 - "He set on the (earth), mountains standing firm, high above it, and bestowed blessings on the earth, and measured therein its sustenance in four days..."
   1. Question:  Does 41:10 included the 2 days of 41:9 above?  If so, why does 41:9 say God created the earth in two days, but 41:10 says that God measured its sustenance in four days?  They are different occurrences.
3. 41:11 - "Then he turned to the sky, and it had been (as) smoke:  he said to it and to the earth:  'Come ye together, willingly or unwillingly..."
4. 41:12 - "So he completed them as seven firmaments in two days, and he assigned to heaven its duty and command..."
5. Question:  the two days of 41:9 plus the four days of 41:10 and the 2 days of 41:12 equals eight days of creation, not six.  Why is that?

     My Response:  http://www.drzakirnaik.com/pages/qanda/32.php

     Matt Slick's Response:  How is putting in a web address for someone else's work a refutation or an answer from my question that Mr. Zawadi is supposed to produce?  I mean no disrespect to Mr. Zawadi, but I'm very disappointed.  I would expect a more precise answer if he is claiming to refute my paper.

My Response:

Why doesn't Matt want to read the link I have provided? The answer to his questions are there. Why do I have to waste my time making new arguments or paraphrasing someone else's answers?

Matt Slick said:

     Zawadi's Original:       Matt Slick said: It is a commonly held belief among Muslims that Muhammad was sinless.  

1. If Muhammad was sinless, then why does the Qur'an state:  "Patiently, then, persevere:  for the promise of Allah is true:  and ask forgiveness for thy fault, and celebrate the praises of they Lord in the evening and the morning." (40:55).
   1. Pickthall translates 40:55 thus:  "Then have patience (O Muhammad). Lo! the promise of Allah is true. And ask forgiveness of thy sin, and hymn the praise of thy Lord at fall of night and in the early hours."
2. The Hadith says, "I heard Allah's Apostle saying." By Allah! I ask for forgiveness from Allah and turn to Him in repentance more than seventy times a day."  Volume 8, Book 75, Number 319, Narrated Abu Huraira:
3. Question:  If it is the common belief that Muhammad was sinless, why do the Qur'an and Hadith contradict that notion?  Which is correct?

     My Response:  Taken from http://www.tasabeeh.com/english/html/article.php?sid=87

     And the prophet Muhammad -peace be upon him- and whom God forgave all his sins of the past and those who follow as The Right -be He blessed- said: “That Allah may forgive thee they faults of the past and those to follow; fulfill His favor to thee; and guide thee on the straight way” (SOURAT AL FATIH- Verse: 2)
     But also still he is always asking for forgiveness, and it was mentioned in Saheeh Al Bukhari that he said: “God, forgive me my sin, ignorance and immoderation in all my matter, and what else you know more than me, O my Lord forgive me, my sins, purpose, ignorance and my joking and all, God, forgive me for what I did and to follow what I hided and what I declared, you are the one who put in advance and after, and you are able to do every thing”
     And as it was mentioned in Saheeh Muslim that he -peace be upon him- asks for God’s forgiveness seventy time in the day and night and when God -be He blessed- forgave him of the past and those to follow, He -be He blessed- doesn’t mean to open the way of wrongdoing to him, no it is the forgiveness which is depends on the knowledge of The Right -to whom belongs might & majesty- of what was the prophet of a true and real faith with a real work and his uncovering to the hide invisible which He knows that this forgiveness will increase the obedience and thanks of the prophet -peace be upon him- and he used to get up in the night until his feet became swollen, they told him: God forgave you of the past and those to follow! Then he said: “Shouldn’t I be a thankful servant?!”
     And because of The Right -be He blessed- mercy of the nation of prophet Muhammad -peace be upon him- He grants us with the escape from sins and to get the complete (general) forgiveness like: The Hajj (to whom can do it), it was mentioned that prophet Muhammad -peace be upon him- has said: “who went for Hajj and doesn’t dissipate then he will be as the day of his birth”
     This just shows how humble the Prophet was and that if the Prophet is asking for forgiveness then what should we be doing? The Prophet is a role model for us and he is showing us what to do. 

     Matt Slick's Response:  I'm glad to see that Mr. Zawadi admits that Mohammed was a sinner. I can only assume that he is telling us that Mohammed was a sinner.

My Response:

We must understand that this verse is sent down as an example for us all to repent to God. It is also sent down to show the humility of the Prophet. To show that he was not divine and not make the same mistake with him as the Christians did with Jesus. 

The Prophet did sin, but not intentionally. There is no record of the Prophet committing horrible disgusting sins as the Prophets of the Old Testament have committed. The Prophet's sins could hardly be counted or regarded as sins. Lets look at a couple of examples.

God criticized the Prophet for turning away his face from the blind man when he was preaching to the chief leaders of Quraysh (80:1-5). He criticized the Prophet for making honey forbidden for himself (66:1).

So these simples mistakes or sins could hardly qualify to call Muhammad a sinner. 

Secondly, only for sake of argument. Lets say that Muhammad was a sinner. Does that disqualify him from being a Prophet? The Prophets of the Old Testament committed horrible sins, but you do not disqualify them from being Prophets. Why do you only apply this criteria to Muhammad?

Matt Slick said:

     Zawadi's Original:       Matt Slick said:   The Qur'an says to have no divisions within Islam.  "The same religion has He established for you as that which He enjoined on Noah - the [sic] which we have sent by inspiration to thee - and that which we enjoined on Abraham, Moses, and Jesus:  namely, that ye should remain steadfast in religion and make no divisions therein:  to those who worship other things than Allah, hard is the (way) to which thou callest them..." (42:13).

1. Question:  If Islam is the truth, which of the divisions within it is the "most" true?
2. Question:  Is Islam in a state of sin since there are divisions within its ranks?

     My Response:  It is illogical for Matt Slick to say that Islam is in a state of sin, no it is the Muslims who create sects that are sinning. Matt Slick is right, it is forbidden for Muslims to create sects among themselves. However, there are sects in Christianity as well. So if I ask Matt Slick "how do you know which Christian sect is the true one" He is going to say "the one that adheres to the bible". Just like how if Matt Slick asks me "If Islam is the truth, which of the divisions within it is the "most" true?", then i would say the sect that adheres to the Quran and authentic traditions of the glorious Prophet Muhammad.

     Matt Slick's Response:  Actually, Mr. Zawadi is correct in that Islam is not in a state of sin; rather, its members are. This is a poorly worded question on my part. I will modify the original question to be "Is the muslim religion as a whole in error since there are divisions within its ranks?"
     Whether or not there are sects within Christianity is not the issue. The question has been asked about which division of Islam is true and Mr. Zawadi offers us nothing of substance. Which sect adhere to the Quran properly? Instead of answering the question he gives us an ambiguous response. This is hardly an adequate rebuttal.

My Response:

Which sect adheres to the Quran properly? The way the Prophet taught us how to adhere to it, since it was his mission (Surah 16:44). We have his hadith and follow them. I answered the question properly. It is your rebuttal that is not proper. 

Also read 

http://www.drzakirnaik.com/pages/qanda/17.php

Matt Slick said:

     Zawadi's Original:       Matt Slick said: The Qur'an says, "And dispute ye not with the People of the Book [Jews and Christians and the Bible], except in the best way, unless it be with those of them who do wrong but say, "We believe in the  revelation which has come down to us and in that which came down to you," (29:46).

1. Question:  Isn't the Qur'an here saying that the Muslim is to believe what the Bible says?

     My Response:  This is referring to the revelation that was originally sent down to Jesus. Not the corrupted bible that we have today.

     Matt Slick's Response:  How do we know that what Mr. Zawadi is saying is correct? Where does the Quran say that the Bible is corrupt? From what I have read in the Quran, it assumes the accuracy of the Bible.

My Response:

The Quran could be talking about the original Torah or Ingeel or the altered and changed one. So we have to be careful with which one it is talking about. 

The Quran says it directly (Surah 2:79). The Quran could also say it indirectly by correcting the errors found in the Bible. 

For example, 

It says in Exodus 31:17 that God got tired after he created the universe but in Surah 50:38 it says otherwise. 

Surah 9:30 criticizes the Christians for their belief that Jesus is the son of God.

In 1 Kings 11:4, Solomon is said to have been an idol worshipper but in Surah 2:102 it says otherwise.

A quick question to Matt even though it might be unrelated. Solomon was one of the authors of the Bible. If the Bible teaches against idol worship and supposedly against polygamy (even though it does not, see this article https://www.answering-christianity.com/ntpoly.htm) then how could one of the authors being an idol worshipping polygamous man? Aren't all the authors of the Bible inspired by the Holy Spirit? How can the Holy Spirit inspire such a man?

Matt Slick said:

     Conclusion

     I mean no disrespect to Mr. Zawadi, but he has presented a mediocre response at best. Where are the answers to the questions? How do you refute a question? Mr. Zawadi spends time writing about possible responses but, unfortunately, tells us to read other web sites. Is this considered a competent Muslim response? I don't believe so.

My Response:

Lets let the readers decide that.

Back to Rebuttals, and exposing the lies of the Answering Islam team section.

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Bassam Zawadi's Rebuttals section.

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